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Critique of Feynman Propagator, the $\E \cdot x$ gauge

Quantum Physics 2023-12-15 v9 High Energy Physics - Theory

Abstract

Consider M\o{}ller scattering. Electrons with momentum pp and p-p scatter by exchange of photon say in zz direction to p+qp+q and (p+q)-(p+q). The scattering amplitude is well known, given as Feynman propagator \M=(ec)2ϵ0Vuˉ(p+q)γμu(p) uˉ((p+q))γμu(p)q2 \M = \frac{(e \hbar c)^2}{\epsilon_0 V} \frac{\bar{u}(p+q) \gamma^{\mu} u(p) \ \bar{u}(-(p+q)) \gamma_{\mu} u(-p)}{q^2}, where VV is the volume of the scattering electrons, ee elementary charge and ϵ0\epsilon_0 permitivity of vacuum. But this is not completely correct. Since we exchange photon momentum in zz direction, we have two photon polarization x,yx,y and hence the true scattering amplitude should be \M1=(ec)2ϵ0Vuˉ(p+q)γxu(p) uˉ((p+q))γxu(p)  +uˉ(p+q)γyu(p) uˉ((p+q))γyu(p) q2. \M_1 = \frac{(e \hbar c)^2}{\epsilon_0 V} \frac{ \bar{u}(p+q) \gamma^{x} u(p) \ \bar{u}(-(p+q)) \gamma_{x} u(-p)\ \ + \bar{u}(p+q) \gamma^{y} u(p) \ \bar{u}(-(p+q)) \gamma_{y} u(-p) \ }{q^2}. But when electrons are non-relativistic, \M10\M_1 \sim 0. This is disturbing, how will we ever get the coulomb potential, where \M(ec)2ϵ0Vq2\M \sim \frac{(e \hbar c)^2}{\epsilon_0 V q^2}. Where is the problem ? The problem is with the gauge in Dirac equation. For a plane wave along zz direction, with electric field Exsin(kzωt)E_x \sin (kz - \omega t), the Lorentz gauge is (A0,Ax,Ay,Az)=Exωcos(kzωt)(0,1,0,0) (A_0, A_x, A_y, A_z) = \frac{E_x}{\omega} \cos(kz-\omega t)(0, 1, 0, 0). But this gauge is not suited for calculating optical transitions, because we don't recover the Rabi frequency qExdq E_x d (dd electric dipole moment). What we find is something orders of magnitude smaller. Nor is it suitable for calculating electron electron scattering because we don't recover Coulomb potential. What we find is something orders of magnitude smaller. Instead, we work with \Ex\E \cdot x gauge (A0,Ax,Ay,Az)=Ex2(x sin(kzωt),cos(kzωt)ω,0,xcsin(kzωt)) (A_0, A_x, A_y, A_z) = \frac{-E_x}{2} ( x\ \sin(kz-\omega t), -\frac{\cos(kz-\omega t)}{\omega}, 0, \frac{x}{c} \sin(kz-\omega t) ) (cc light velocity) to find everything correct. What we get is new propagator.

Keywords

Cite

@article{arxiv.1801.08393,
  title  = {Critique of Feynman Propagator, the $\E \cdot x$ gauge},
  author = {Navin Khaneja},
  journal= {arXiv preprint arXiv:1801.08393},
  year   = {2023}
}

Comments

7 pgs, 2 Figs